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Hmm, wonder what the reasons are for posting this? I ask, because it reminds me of when Jesus heals the official's son and says :
John 4
48"Unless you people see miraculous signs and wonders," Jesus told him, "you will never believe."
Just wondering....
God Bless
2006-08-04 05:01:35 Posted by Lee ()
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My reason, Lee, is this: Christ, in this context, was either talking to his disciples, (either the nine or all twelve) the scribes who were arguing with the nine, the throng that had gathered, or any combination of the above. So the message could have been for any or all. (brings to mind for me 'Let him who has ears, let him hear...')
Anyways, Christ knew the answer to this rhetorical question, and yet he asked it. To me, that sounds like sarcasm. My sarcasm can be great, and I have been rebuked for it before (sometimes rightfully so, I might add) but sometimes it has the edge of annoyance and at other times it has the bite of humor. I am not sure, but I lean in this context that it was the former more than the latter that our Lord intended for us to understand.
In my previous post, I talked about poetry. I was making the comment somewhat tongue in check, for the language that sounded poetic was not indeed the original language. It might be that this passage did have a poetic lilt to it in the original language, (certainly some parts of the bible do in the original language) but I was thinking about the liberties that sometimes might be taken by the translators in the choice of words they use to translate.
But every passage has more than one message, and even the very letters of every word are placed so carefully and completely to reveal the very special nature of God's word. I speak of another great mystery. One that no other book in this world shares.
Amen,
Mel
2006-08-04 06:07:19 Posted by Mel ()
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